Equivalencia entre las contraprestaciones

03:03 Apr 30, 2023 

Good explanation. Indeed I meant to say Share Price and Share Value. Thanks!

02:52 Apr 30, 2023 

Thanks for the reference, this helpful. Yes, I meant to say Share Price and Share Value, sorry for the confusion.

02:33 Apr 30, 2023 

So I understand there is a gap between the Share Price and Share Price...

As suggested by Taña, it's a question of an eventual 'gap' (difference) between the share price and the share value. The text under the heading Equivalencia entre las contraprestaciones establishes that the parties agree that the price paid to the seller for the shares is equivalent to the current value of the shares acquired by the buyer, and the buyer and seller assume, each at their own cost, the consequences any 'non-equivalence' that might in fact exist.
IOW, the parties are agreeing that the deal was fair ('fair exchange is no robbery', as they say).

01:06 Apr 30, 2023 

Here is a link which may help. It provides an example of "perfect equivalence". "Indeed, a CNBC analysis showed that going back to 1985, Hershey’s coefficient of correlation with the S&P 500′s performance nine months later is an impressive 0.86 (a correlation coefficient of 1.0 shows perfect equivalence). That means that 86 percent of the time that Hershey shares have moved higher or lower on a daily basis, the S&P tracked the movement nine months later."

Also, I think here, "Las Partes declaran que entre el Precio y el valor de las Acciones existe perfecta equivalencia ...", and you've used "Share Price" twice in the English draft, as opposed to "price" (of the share) vs. "the value of the share". I think? Regards. HTH the example helps. Goodness: I forgot to include the link: https://www.cnbc.com/2013/06/19/the-chocolate-indicator-usin...